435, P = 0 038) and weakly with dialysis vintage (n = 60, r = −0

435, P = 0.038) and weakly with dialysis vintage (n = 60, r = −0.216, P = 0.050). Serum Fet-A RR, on the other hand, Smad inhibitor were positively correlated with log-transformed serum CRP concentrations (Fig. 3; r = 0.338, P = 0.002) dialysis vintage (n = 60, r = 0.508, P < 0.001), and weakly with calcium carbonate dosage (r = 0.345, P = 0.047). Neither serum total Fet-A concentrations nor Fet-A RR showed significant differences with respect to gender. Inflammation and mineral stress, as commonly seen in patients with CKD, are associated with detectable

levels of CPP in the circulation. CPP formation may prevent further mineral aggregation, crystallization and progressive crystal growth, but may also deplete levels of free Fet-A that may have protective cellular effects. Calcium phosphate nanocrystals are pro-inflammatory to macrophage, stimulating the production of pro-inflammatory cytokines and reactive oxygen species and are thus by themselves damaging.[24] Therefore, CPP formation

may be viewed as a response to mineral stress to prevent systemic mineral deposition. Recent work describes the rapid uptake of CPP by the reticuloendothelial system,[15] thereby removing potentially damaging packets of mineral and preventing their aberrant deposition. find more These data are certainly congruent with this theory. The fact that these CPP are not normally detectable in the circulation, and that mechanisms of clearance exist, suggests that in pathological states, either the rate of formation is increased or the rate of removal is reduced

or at least exceeds the capacity of the clearance pathway. There is good in vitro evidence that free Fet-A is internalized by mineral-stressed VSMC, wherein it inhibits caspase-induced apoptosis and matrix-vesicle mineralization,[34] both key steps in VC. Hence limitation of free Fet-A by consumption in the formation of CPP may exacerbate the situation. Alternatively Fet-A-containing CPP may be taken up by macrophage or VSMC and may themselves have deleterious cellular effects. In this paper we again show that CPP are detectable in CKD and are present at high levels in patients Pomalidomide nmr undergoing dialysis as indicated by the high serum Fet-A RR. The slightly higher average Fet-A RR in HD compared with PD patients presumably in part reflects lower systemic inflammation observed in some PD patients, but also their shorter dialysis vintage. If the removal of CPP were merely a function of renal function then one might expect to find the absence of such particles in conditions where renal function is normal. We recently reported a case of Takayasu’s arteritis which was associated with gross VC, raised serum Fet-A RR but normal renal function.[31] We have extended this observation in this study by showing that the presence of chronic inflammation per se appears associated with elevated serum Fet-A RR, even in patients with normal renal function, suggesting a role for inflammation in the genesis of these particles.

11), both from Levice (Table 1) A certain cross-reactivity with

11), both from Levice (Table 1). A certain cross-reactivity with other rickettsia-tested bacteria was detected, for example samples Nos 3, 5, 23, and 32, which also reacted with Bartonella and Borrelia antigens. However, the spectrum of detected bacteria was larger: one Bartonella henselae (no. 2, from the village of Plášt’ovce), two Bartonella quintana (no. 3 from the city of

Levice and no. 2 from Plášt’ovce), three Bartonella grahamii (no. 2 from Levice, no. 23 from Kukučínov, and no. 34 from Nové Zámky,) and four Bartonella elisabethae (no. 3 from Levice, no. 23 from Kukučínov, PCI-32765 mouse no. 32 from Svodín, and no. 34 from Nové Zámky) cases supposedly had positive IFA titers (≥ 1 : 50) (Fig. 1). In one serum of a patient from the city

of Levice (no. 5, Fig. 2) both Borrelia burgdorferi and Borrelia recurrentis antigens were recognized. Cross-reaction with Borrelia and Bartonella was seen in case no. 18 from Plášt’ovce. The same titer range as above was used to detect two C. burnetii-specific cases identified with phase I and phase II antigens (no. 37 from the village of Zemné, county of Nové Zámky, and no. 47 from the village of Vinice, county of Vel’ký Krtíš). The only Franciscella-positive serum sample originated from the city of Levice (no. 2). The problems of interpreting conventional diagnostic serology results highlight the need for diagnostics CHIR-99021 manufacturer with genetic and/or antigenic targets. PCR amplification of blood samples has the advantage of being able to detect infection if a seroconversion has occurred, and is especially important in endemic areas where high levels of background antibodies pose a challenge for serology. The rationale for selecting the IFA-positive samples for the PCR analysis included the presence of IgM antibodies with titers around 1 : 50 against any of the tested spotted fever group rickettsial antigens in the samples. Bacteria-specific PCR was used as a verification tool after IFA to diagnose the illness, although conflicting sensitivities were expected (Fournier & IMP dehydrogenase Raoult, 2003). Indeed, the results obtained by IFA were only partly confirmed

by PCR, which confirmed five of 16 in IFA-positive rickettsial cases. Use of 16S rRNA genes and rickettsia-specific gltA genes enabled us to identify three R. helvetica-positive patient sera (no. 3 from Levice, no. 25 from Horča and no. 31 from Mankovce), one R. slovaca (no. 11 from the city of Levice), and one R. raoultii case (no. 46, from the county of Lučenec). Amplification of the fragment of the 16S–23S rRNA gene ITS region verified Ba. elisabethae in the serum of the patient no. 34 from Nové Zámky. Borrelia identified in serum by IFA (no. 5) was confirmed in PCR with primers Bf1 and Br1. However, species specificity (Bo. recurrentis ssp. A1, or Bo. burgdorferi) could not be satisfactorily distinguished. The single F. tularensis ssp. tularensis sample (no. 2), also obtained from the city of Levice, was detected by IFA only.

As mentioned in RANKL promotes mTEC proliferation and thymic medu

As mentioned in RANKL promotes mTEC proliferation and thymic medulla formation, RANKL is a potent inducer of mTEC the proliferation and promotes the formation of the thymic medulla. Indeed, the forced expression of RANKL in developing thymocytes is sufficient Selleckchem ACP-196 to increase mTEC cellularity and induce thymic medulla formation, even in mice lacking positive selection 19. As mTECs and the thymic medulla contribute to the establishment of self-tolerance, the delivery of RANKL into the thymus may be useful

for controlling self-tolerance and alleviating autoimmune diseases in the future. To this end, we have examined the effects of the systemic administration of RANKL on the thymic microenvironment in mice. To do so, we analyzed transgenic mice that expressed the soluble form of RANKL protein. RANKL is produced as a membrane-anchored protein and released from the plasma membrane by TNF-α convertase (TACE) or related metalloproteases 47. For the transgenic expression of soluble RANKL (sRANKL), the transgene was constructed by linking the mouse RANKL cDNA encoding the extracellular hydrophilic domain of RANKL with an immunoglobulin κ chain

leader sequence 48. This fusion gene was driven by the human amyloid P component promoter for expression in the liver 48; however, the expression of transgenic sRANKL was detected in other organs, including the INCB018424 price thymus and the spleen. The concentration of serum sRANKL was elevated to 30–40 ng/mL in the sRANKL-transgenic mice, as compared with less than 1 ng/mL in WT mice 48. H&E staining of thymic sections revealed that the thymic medulla was enlarged in sRANKL-transgenic mice, as compared with WT mice (Fig. 1A). Immunohistological staining of the thymic sections showed that the number of Aire-expressing mTECs was increased in sRANKL-transgenic mice (Fig. 1B). Flow cytometry analysis indicated that the numbers of CD45−EpCAM+UEA-1+Ly51− mTECs and Aire+mTECs were significantly increased in sRANKL-transgenic, Dehydratase as compared with

WT mice (Fig. 1C). On the other hand, the numbers of total thymic cells and CD45−EpCAM+UEA-1−Ly51+cTECs were comparable between WT and sRANKL-transgenic mice (Fig. 1C). These results indicate that the transgenic expression of sRANKL increases the number of mTECs, including Aire-expressing mTECs and the size of the thymic medulla. TNFSF cytokines, including RANKL, CD40L, and LT, cooperatively regulate the proliferation and differentiation of mTECs and the formation of the thymic medulla, which crucially contributes to the establishment of self-tolerance. The transgenic expression of sRANKL potently increases the number of mTECs and the administration of RANKL may be useful for promoting the mTEC-mediated establishment of self-tolerance and alleviating autoimmune diseases in the future.

[30] So, quantifying chemokine impact on DC phenotype could provi

[30] So, quantifying chemokine impact on DC phenotype could provide grounds for new immunotherapeutic strategies. Podosomes are generally described as dynamic assemblies of actin molecules,[50] and iDCs readily form actin-rich podosomes that play a role in extracellular matrix degradation and migration of DCs through tissues.[51, 52] A disassembly of DC podosomes coincides with increases in DC endocytosis while fully matured DCs do not form podosomes.[53] Chemokine (CCL3) induces

chemotaxis of iDCs in association with complete remodelling of the actin cytoskeleton, which leads to dissolution of podosomes and to a change KU-60019 molecular weight of DC morphology.[54] Actin cytoskeleton remodelling depending on chemokines also suggests that the disappearance of podosomes and the acquisition of migratory ability by DCs are linked.[54] Moreover, CCL3 enhances endocytic behaviour of iDCs rapidly within a few minutes, although the exact mechanism still remains unclear.[35, 36] Cell division

control protein 42 (Cdc42) is a small GTPase (an enzyme that hydrolyses guanosine triphosphate) that controls actin cytoskeleton remodelling[55] and regulates endocytosis of DCs; whereas blockage of Cdc42 reduces endocytosis in iDCs. Transfection of this molecule in mDC enhanced their endocytic capacity.[56] In addition, disassembly of podosomes is independent of Cdc42 activation status,[53] and when mDCs are exposed

to CCL19, the Cdc42 activation and the endocytic capacity of mDCs increases rapidly within a few minutes.[36] Cell Penetrating Peptide Yanagawa and Onoe[57] Selleck GSK126 also found that CCL19 induces the extension of dendrites in mDCs. From these observations, we can postulate that DC treatment with select chemokines may activate Cdc42 in iDCs or mDCs, which affects actin cytoskeleton reorganization and endocytic behaviour of DCs. Ovalbumin is internalized by iDCs through a combination of mannose receptor-mediated endocytosis and fluid-phase macropinocytosis, and when the mannose receptor is blocked, OVA internalization of iDCs is reduced by ~20%.[17] These findings suggest that macropinocytosis contributes to OVA internalization by iDCs more than mannose receptor-mediated endocytosis. Upon maturation of DCs, expression of mannose receptors on the cell surface is down-regulated[58] and DCs cease macropinocytosis.[47] Yanagawa and Onoe[36] reported that when CCL19 is added to mDCs, CCL19 does not increase macropinocytosis in mDCs. Here, CCL3 or CCL19 or their combinations were added to iDCs for 24 hr, and then DCs were intentionally matured with LPS for another 24 hr in the presence of chemokines. Hence, it is conceivable that low levels of CCL19 (30 ng/ml) in the chemokine cocktail, induced more OVA internalization (Figs 2 and 6a) mainly by inducing DC macropinocytosis at high levels, even after LPS treatment.

9B) Consequently, the reduction of STAT-3 tyrosine phosphorylati

9B). Consequently, the reduction of STAT-3 tyrosine phosphorylation after inhibition of p38 and p44/42 MAPKs could be prevented by

the addition of exogenous IL-6 and IL-10 (Fig. 9C). It has been shown previously that the TLR4 ligand LPS added at early time points during the GM-CSF and IL-4-driven differentiation of monocytes into iDCs alter the differentiation process 5–7. APCs (TLR-APC) are generated that express no CD1a, but remain CD14 positive. We found that other TLR ligands especially the TLR7/8 small molecular weight agonist R848 influences the differentiation of DCs in selleck chemicals llc a comparable manner (Fig. 1). By using allogeneic MLRs we show that R848-APCs were weak stimulators for CD4+T cells (Fig. 2B). However, CD8+ T cells were activated almost equally by iDCs and TLR-APCs (Fig. 2C). This suggested that TLR-APCs might induce inhibitory T cells in the CD4+ T-cell population. Indeed, SAHA HDAC solubility dmso the experiments revealed that TLR-APCs generated Tregs (Fig. 2D–G). Thus, TLR-APCs display a tolerogenic APC phenotype. During induction

of TLR-APCs, we found a strong IL-6 production, which is at first glance conflicting to our finding that TLR-APCs induce Tregs. It is known that both Tregs and Th17 cells are induced by TGF-β, yet in the presence of IL-6 the balance between Th17 cells and Tregs is shifted toward Th17 cells 34, 35. However, other cytokines counteract the IL-6-driven induction of Th17 cells. IL-2 for example has been shown to block Th17 differentiation in the presence of TGF-β and IL-6 36. In that context, it is interesting, that cultures of T cells with TLR-APCs contained high amounts of IL-2 (Supporting Information Fig. 2), suggesting that this mixture of cytokines indeed promotes induction of Tregs. Several studies link PD-L1 expression directly to the development

and function of Tregs 37, 38. As TLR-APCs express high levels of PD-L1 (Fig. 3A), this could explain in turn their ability to induce Tregs. While PD-L1 expression might favor Treg generation, the reduced MHC II expression on TLR-APCs (Fig. 3B) could account for their inability to induce effectively primary T-cell responses. Interestingly, it has been shown in DCs that the expression of MHC II can be negatively influenced by the IL-6/STAT-3 pathway 39, which seems to be also important in R848-APCs. Other members of the B7 family in addition Protirelin to PD-L1 are described as co-inhibitory and are also increased in R848-APCs: PD-L2 (B7-DC) 25, B7-H3 40 and B7-H4 41 (Fig. 3A). The role of PD-L2 seems to be of particular interest, since the genes for PD-L2 and PD-L1 are closely linked 42 and both molecules bind the same receptor (PD-1). Besides co-inhibitory also co-stimulatory molecules like CD80 (Fig. 3A) and CD40 (Fig. 3B) are upregulated. However, co-inhibitory molecules seem to be expressed preferentially in R848-APCs. This is in accordance with recent evidences that the ratio between co-inhibitory and co-stimulatory molecules critically determines the functionality of APCs 32, 43.

influenzae or Moraxella catarrhalis, and for fastidious organisms

influenzae or Moraxella catarrhalis, and for fastidious organisms. There is therefore a need to develop antibody-based diagnostics that detect specific microbial antigens in a fluid or aspirate. For serological-based assays, ELISA is used in CF patients with P. aeruginosa biofilm infection to detect antibodies specific to P. aeruginosa in general (e.g. water-soluble antigens obtained by sonication of bacterial cells from 17 different serotypes of P. aeruginosa

(Høiby, 1977), or to specific toxins such as P. aeruginosa elastase, alkaline protease or exotoxin A, or alginate to diagnose this website P. aeruginosa in serum from CF patients (Pedersen et al., 1990; Pressler et al., 2006, 2009; Proesmans et al., 2006; Ratjen et al., 2007). The exploration

of serological Doxorubicin in vitro tests for circulating antibodies specific for other BAI organisms would also add a useful method to the biofilm diagnostic toolbox (Selan et al., 2002; Brady et al., 2006). What clinical information may inform the diagnosis of BAI? Chronic or recurrent infection itself has been suggested as a diagnostic criterion along with recalcitrance of the infection to antibiotic treatment (Høiby et al., 2010a). For example, the BAI in CF is characterized by progressive chronic lung infection in response to multiple respiratory pathogens, which are eventually dominated by P. aeruginosa. This organism then may ever adopt a mucoid phenotype that is highly resistant to clearance by antibiotic or host immune responses. CF illustrates several aspects

of biofilm-associated disease (Høiby et al., 2010b) and contrasts with acute pneumonias that are resolved with antibiotic therapy. This parallels chronic OM that is recalcitrant to antibiotic treatment and distinct from acute OM that responds well to antibiotic treatment. Thus, both recalcitrance to antibiotic treatment and long-term duration of the infection are important indicators of BAI. A more detailed diagnostic algorithm will be more likely to result in a more accurate diagnostic tool. At a discussion session regarding clinical biofilms at the 5th ASM Biofilm Conference in Cancun, Mexico (Biofilms 2009 Proceedings, 2010), several images from clinical cases were shown and discussants were asked whether the case was biofilm associated. Consensus was reached primarily by showing microscopic images of aggregated bacteria associated with host tissue. Interestingly, most of the images were considered by the discussants to show biofilms with no knowledge of the specific bacterial etiology or details of the case, indicating that a key attribute was the visual demonstration of aggregated bacteria (by FISH) attached to host tissue, demonstrating evidence of microbial organization as well as a microbial–host interaction.

This protein subset was PCR-amplified,

This protein subset was PCR-amplified, Lumacaftor molecular weight cloned into a T7 bacterial vector, the plasmids were purified and the proteins expressed using an in vitro cell-free Escherichia coli system. A total of 222 cell-free proteins from both species were contact printed onto nitrocellulose glass slides. This protein microarray can then be probed with infection sera, ASC-probes or other sources of antibody, such as bronchoalveolar lavage fluid. Reactive antigens have already been identified by immunoscreening of the schistosome protein microarray with infected mouse, rat and human sera (80,81; Driguez P. and McManus D.P., unpublished data). By combining both S. japonicum

and S. mansoni proteins on the microarray, we can take advantage of shared orthologues and cross-species reactivity

when screening with infection sera from any species. While the current set of microarray Decitabine datasheet proteins is relatively small, future versions could readily incorporate thousands of proteins. Compared to conventional proteomics techniques, the benefits of using this immunomics protein microarray system include: small sample volumes are needed, typically for serum only 1–2 μL; there are no biases because of variable protein abundance from in vitro pathogen culturing or protein extract purification/separation methods (e.g. 2D-PAGE); easy identification of reactive antigens; low technical difficulty; and easy adaptability to PAK6 high-throughput screenings. There are, however, limitations such as: the need for complex data and statistical analysis; loss of some epitopes because of missing post-translational modifications or disulphide bonds and incorrect folding; and missing carbohydrate and lipid moieties that are present on native proteins (68,80). Similar immunomics protein microarrays have been manufactured for entire or partial proteomes of 25 bacterial, viral and parasitic pathogens (68), and these have proven to be effective vaccine and diagnostic discovery tools. Studies

with numerous pathogen protein microarrays have revealed that antigens that are exposed to the host immune system, such as signal peptide proteins and extracellular proteins, are over-represented in the set of reactive proteins compared with the proteome (68). A Francisella tularensis microarray identified 11 of the 12 antigens discovered previously using protein gels and mass spectroscopy plus an additional 31 completely new antigens (68). Antibodies from mice immunized against Chlamydia trachomatis recognized 185 proteins consisting of previously described protective antigens, and new hypothetical and unstudied proteins (82). This approach has also been employed for immunomic studies on malaria, where significant progress has been made using protein microarrays (67); here, the arrays were probed with sera from individuals displaying varying degrees of immunity.

On the other hand, earlier restoration of renal function may miti

On the other hand, earlier restoration of renal function may mitigate cardiovascular risks associated with uremia, potentially preventing significant cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. Observational studies seemed to suggest that earlier transplantation does not appear to be associated with better patient and graft survival. A retrospective review of 19,471 first-time preemptive renal transplant recipients reported to the UNOS data7 between January 1, 1995 and December 31, 2009, showed that annual mean estimated GFR (eGFR) at the time of pre-emptive transplant ranged

from 9.2 ml/min/1.73 m2 to 13.8 ml/min/1.73 m2. Nonetheless, the authors did not detect any statistically significant differences in patient or death-censored graft survival between strata of eGFR at the time of transplant. It is noteworthy that to LY2835219 date, there is no randomized controlled trial available, from which to draw substantive conclusions on the optimal timing for renal transplantation prior to the initiation of dialysis therapy. While most preemptive renal transplants are from a living donor, up to a quarter of these transplants occur with deceased donors. Therefore, it also raise to question the timing for listing these patients, balancing the chances of receiving a deceased donor kidney prior to dialysis initiation and optimizing resources in maintaining these potential

recipients on the list. Analysis of the Scientific Poziotinib Registry of Transplant Recipients database of Farnesyltransferase 57,677 renal transplant candidates8 demonstrated that a higher renal function at listing was strongly associated with a greater likelihood of receiving a preemptive transplant and a significantly better survival advantage. Mean eGFR at listing was 14.8 ml/min/1.73 m2 and the adjusted odds ratio for preemptive transplant was 1.45 per 5 ml/min/1.73 m2 increase in eGFR. Unfortunately, available literature is again mainly observational

and retrospective in nature. In summary, preemptive renal transplantation appears to confer superior allograft and patient survival benefit, reasons for which are multifactorial and mainly related to patient selection, correction of the uremic milieu and even unknown factors peculiar to the procedure itself. Outcomes of the transplant did not seem to differ when stratified by the eGFR at the time of transplant, but placing these patients on the waitlist early increases their odds of having the transplant performed preemptively. 1. Wolfe RA, Ashby VB, Milford EL et al. Comparison of mortality in all patients on dialysis, patients on dialysis awaiting transplantation, and recipients of a first cadaveric transplant. N Engl J Med 1999; 341:1725–1730. 2. Meier-Kriesche HU, Port FK, Ojo AO et al. Effect of waiting time on renal transplant outcome. Kidney Int 2000; 58:1311–1317. 3.

Microbial mannans are well-known immunomodulators (Gilleron et al

Microbial mannans are well-known immunomodulators (Gilleron et al., 2005; Dinadayala et al., 2006). In addition, given that biofilm formation is at the root of many persistent and chronic infectious diseases (Costerton et al., 1999), the chronicity of brucellosis could be linked to the biofilm-like formation ability of B. melitensis. Although we demonstrated that MG210 and wild-type strains do not behave in a different

way either in a cellular model (Fig. 9) or in a mouse model of infection (data not shown), we cannot exclude a role for B. melitensis exopolysaccharide in vivo as mice were infected intraperitoneally, which does not reflect the natural entry route of Brucella. Moreover, among all the possible signals and regulatory pathways involved in biofilm formation, we only demonstrated Dasatinib order a role for the QS and the AHLs in B. melitensis

clumping. Other signals also probably need to be taken into account, and their discovery will help to identify the situations triggering the wild-type strain 3-deazaneplanocin A mouse to produce exopolysaccharide and form clumps. The identification of the genes involved in the biosynthesis of B. melitensis exopolysaccharide, together with the environmental signals to which they respond in the intricate regulatory processes leading to the clumping phenotype, will help to determine the precise role of the exopolysaccharide. When looking to the B. melitensis 16M genome, several candidates involved in exopolysaccharide biosynthesis have emerged and their potential role in exopolysaccharide synthesis is actually under characterization. We are grateful to C. Didembourg for helpful technical assistance and advices. Pyruvate dehydrogenase We thank the past and present members of the Brucella team of the URBM for fruitful discussions. We also thank the Unité de Recherche en Biologie Cellulaire, the Unité Interfacultaire

de Microscopie Electronique and the Unité de Recherche en Biologie Végétale (University of Namur, Belgium) for their welcome and help with use of the confocal microscope and lyophilization, the transmission and scanning electron microscopes and the HPLC, respectively. M.G., A.M. and S.U. hold a specialization grant from the Fonds pour la Formation à la Recherche dans l’Industrie et l’Agriculture (FRIA). This work was supported by grants from the Swedish Research Council (VR), The Knut and Alice Wallenberg Foundation and Magn. Bergvalls Stiftelse. “
“Leishmania (Viannia) braziliensis causes cutaneous and mucosal leishmaniasis in several countries in Latin America. In mammals, the parasites live as amastigotes, interacting with host immune cells and stimulating cytokine production that will drive the type of the specific immune responses. Generation of Th17 lymphocytes is associated with tissue destruction and depends on IL-1β, IL-6, TGF-β and IL-23 production, whereas IL-10 and TGF-β are associated with tissue protection.

Ecstasy and related compounds release neuroactive compounds inclu

Ecstasy and related compounds release neuroactive compounds including serotonin, dopamine

and noradrenaline as well as blocking neuronal re-uptake of these compounds. This leads to the elevated mood state as well as alterations in thermoregulation and autonomic dysfunction. This is also associated with enhanced release of arginine vasopressin, cortisol and adrenocorticotrophin.2 N-benzylpiperazine has gained popularity as a rave drug for producing sensation of euphoria, energy and desire to socialize and is not subject to the controlled drug restrictions that outlaw ecstasy.3 selleckchem While piperazine-based hallucinogens or stimulants are not currently used therapeutically, they are misused. Party pills containing BZP have many names on the market (e.g. A2, Nemesis, Frenzy, Charge Herbal, Black Pepper Extract, Kinase Inhibitor Library mw Herbal Ecstasy, Good Stuff, Legal X).4 BZP has been called a ‘natural’ product by some retailers, describing it as a ‘pepper extract’ or ‘herbal high’, when in fact the drug is entirely synthetic and has not been found to occur naturally. Piperazine derivatives were first synthesized in the 1950s as antihelminthic agents, but because of their lack of efficacy and significant side-effects they

were withdrawn from the market. In the 1970s and 1980s several studies showed that BZP had a stimulant, amphetamine-like effect, and in the 1990s the drug became popular for as recreational drug. In 2002, it was made illegal in USA and banned in most parts of Europe and Australia soon afterwards.5 In New Zealand, the sale of BZP and the other listed piperazines became illegal as of April 2008. The sale of BZP is legal in the UK and Canada and in general is sold as a legal alternative

to Ecstasy.1 The prevalence of party pill usage in the USA and the UK is increasing; exact numbers are unknown but in New Zealand in 2007 it was so widely used that an estimated 5 million pills were sold.6 Serious toxicity can occur even at a usual standard dose and are similar to methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA, ‘ecstasy’) effects. In general, tablets and capsules contain 70–1000 mg BZP. Some products contain BZP in combination with TFMPP (3-Trifluoromethylphenylpiperazine) generally in a ratio of 2:1. An ingestion of 50–100 mg of BZP in an adult is unlikely to cause Sodium butyrate serious toxicity. Doses over 250 mg of a piperazine-based designer drug would be likely to cause moderate toxicity, such as anxiety, agitation, hypertension, tachycardia, palpitations, gastrointestinal upset and headache. Seizures, tremor, hallucinations, fever, chest pain and jaw clenching may accompany this. An increase of the dose to 500 mg can cause these effects to be prolonged and fatal.4,7 Apparent drug–drug synergism and adverse behavioural effects (e.g. seizures) are associated with high-dose administration of BZP especially in combination with TFMPP.